UPSC
June 30, 2020
Tuesday, June 30, 2020
UPSC
June 30, 2020
GENERAL SCIENCE PHYSICS ONE LINERS FOR TNPSC UPSC SSC SET 146
GENERAL SCIENCE PHYSICS ONE LINERS FOR TNPSC UPSC SSC SET 146
1451). The principle of gravitational lenses is
A). reflection of light
B). refraction of light
C). polarisation of light
D). bending of light around masses
Answer: bending of light around masses
1452). Liquid helium can reduce the temperature of the coil in MRI Equipment to around
A). 40 K
B). 4 K
C). 273 K
D). 0°C
Answer: 4 K
1453). Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1) A fuse wire is made of 37% lead and 63% tin
2) A fuse wire is made of 63% lead and 37% tin
3) A fuse wire has high resistance and low melting point
4) A fuse wire has low resistance and high melting point
A). 1, 4 are correct statements
B). 2, 3 are correct statements
C). 1, 3 are correct statements
D). 2, 4 are correct statements
Answer: 1, 3 are correct statements
1454). Rain drop starts to fall down when the velocity of the drop is
A). equal to terminal velocity
B). greater than terminal velocity
C). lesser than terminal velocity
D). greater than critical velocity
Answer: greater than terminal velocity
1455). Consider the following statements.
Assertion (A): Anemometer is a device used for measuring rainfall.
Reason (R): It has aluminium cups which turn on a spindle.
Select your answer according to the coding scheme given below.
A). Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
B). Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
C). (A) is true but (R) is false
D). (A) is false but (R) is true
Answer: (A) is false but (R) is true
1456). Consider the following statements.
Assertion (A): The energy spent in Magnetising a specimen is not recoverable and there occurs a loss of energy in the form of heat.
Reason (R): During a cycle of magnetisation the molecular magnets in a specimen are oriented and reoriented a number of times.
Select your answer according to the coding scheme given below.
A). Both (A) and (R) are true also (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
B). Both (A) and (R) are true also (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
C). (A) is true but (R) is false
D). (A) is false but (R) is true
Answer: Both (A) and (R) are true also (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
1457). Who has developed and demonstrated the first nuclear reactor in the year 1942?
A). Bhor and Wheeler
B). Enrico Fermi
C). Albert Einstein
D). Bhor and Mottleson
Answer: Enrico Fermi
1458). The Young's modulus of carbon Nanotubes (CNT) ranges from
A). 1.68 to 2 Tpa
B). 1.28 to 1.8 Tpa
C). 0.168 to 0.2 Tpa
D). 0.128 to 0.18 Tpa
Answer: 1.28 to 1.8 Tpa
1459). The telescope used for the research of supernovae is
A). Hubble space telescope
B). Chandrasekar space telescope
C). Hertzberg space telescope
D). Russel space telescope
Answer: Hubble space telescope
1460). The ratio of the intensity of magnetisation to the applied magnetic field strength is known as magnetic
A). Susceptibility
B). Co-ercivity
C). Retentivity
D). Permeability
Answer: Susceptibility
A). reflection of light
B). refraction of light
C). polarisation of light
D). bending of light around masses
Answer: bending of light around masses
1452). Liquid helium can reduce the temperature of the coil in MRI Equipment to around
A). 40 K
B). 4 K
C). 273 K
D). 0°C
Answer: 4 K
1453). Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1) A fuse wire is made of 37% lead and 63% tin
2) A fuse wire is made of 63% lead and 37% tin
3) A fuse wire has high resistance and low melting point
4) A fuse wire has low resistance and high melting point
A). 1, 4 are correct statements
B). 2, 3 are correct statements
C). 1, 3 are correct statements
D). 2, 4 are correct statements
Answer: 1, 3 are correct statements
1454). Rain drop starts to fall down when the velocity of the drop is
A). equal to terminal velocity
B). greater than terminal velocity
C). lesser than terminal velocity
D). greater than critical velocity
Answer: greater than terminal velocity
1455). Consider the following statements.
Assertion (A): Anemometer is a device used for measuring rainfall.
Reason (R): It has aluminium cups which turn on a spindle.
Select your answer according to the coding scheme given below.
A). Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
B). Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
C). (A) is true but (R) is false
D). (A) is false but (R) is true
Answer: (A) is false but (R) is true
1456). Consider the following statements.
Assertion (A): The energy spent in Magnetising a specimen is not recoverable and there occurs a loss of energy in the form of heat.
Reason (R): During a cycle of magnetisation the molecular magnets in a specimen are oriented and reoriented a number of times.
Select your answer according to the coding scheme given below.
A). Both (A) and (R) are true also (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
B). Both (A) and (R) are true also (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
C). (A) is true but (R) is false
D). (A) is false but (R) is true
Answer: Both (A) and (R) are true also (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
1457). Who has developed and demonstrated the first nuclear reactor in the year 1942?
A). Bhor and Wheeler
B). Enrico Fermi
C). Albert Einstein
D). Bhor and Mottleson
Answer: Enrico Fermi
1458). The Young's modulus of carbon Nanotubes (CNT) ranges from
A). 1.68 to 2 Tpa
B). 1.28 to 1.8 Tpa
C). 0.168 to 0.2 Tpa
D). 0.128 to 0.18 Tpa
Answer: 1.28 to 1.8 Tpa
1459). The telescope used for the research of supernovae is
A). Hubble space telescope
B). Chandrasekar space telescope
C). Hertzberg space telescope
D). Russel space telescope
Answer: Hubble space telescope
1460). The ratio of the intensity of magnetisation to the applied magnetic field strength is known as magnetic
A). Susceptibility
B). Co-ercivity
C). Retentivity
D). Permeability
Answer: Susceptibility
UPSC
June 30, 2020
GENERAL SCIENCE PHYSICS ONE LINERS FOR TNPSC UPSC SSC SET 145
GENERAL SCIENCE PHYSICS ONE LINERS FOR TNPSC UPSC SSC SET 145
1441). To hear a distant
echo, the surface reflecting the sound should atleast be at a distance
(Take velocity of sound in air = 340 m/s)
A). 34 m
B). 17 m
C). 51 m
D). 10 m
Answer: 17 m
1442). Identify the process(es) from the following which involves absorption of heat:
l) Condensation II) Sublimation III) Evaporation
A). l and II only
B). l and III only
C). II and Ill only
D). I only
Answer: II and Ill only
1443). 1 KM(A), 1 Light year (B) and 1 Astronomical unit (C) are related as
A). A = B = C
B). A < B < C
C). A < B > C
D). A > B > C
Answer: A < B > C
1444). Mass of an object is 10 kilogram. Its weight on the earth and is space respectively are 5N,10N
A). 5N, 10N
B). 10N, 10N
C). 10 N, zero N
D). 98 N, zero N
A). 34 m
B). 17 m
C). 51 m
D). 10 m
Answer: 17 m
1442). Identify the process(es) from the following which involves absorption of heat:
l) Condensation II) Sublimation III) Evaporation
A). l and II only
B). l and III only
C). II and Ill only
D). I only
Answer: II and Ill only
1443). 1 KM(A), 1 Light year (B) and 1 Astronomical unit (C) are related as
A). A = B = C
B). A < B < C
C). A < B > C
D). A > B > C
Answer: A < B > C
1444). Mass of an object is 10 kilogram. Its weight on the earth and is space respectively are 5N,10N
A). 5N, 10N
B). 10N, 10N
C). 10 N, zero N
D). 98 N, zero N
Answer: 98 N, zero N
1445). What is the non conservative force in the following forces?
A). Frictional force
B). Spring force
C). Gravitational force
D). Force due to Earth's gravity
Answer: Frictional force
1446). Certain metals and compounds carry high electric current and have zero resistance at very low temperatures. The materials possessing this property are known as
A). Resistors
B). Capacitors
C). Dielectrics
D). Super conductors
Answer: Super conductors
1447). The property of rotating the plane of vibration of polarised light by certain crystals is called
A). Polarisation
B). Diffraction
C). Optical activity
D). Interference
Answer: Optical activity
1448). Match the following List - I with List - I! and choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
List - l List - II
a) Temperature 1) Kilogram
b) Luminous intensity 2) Ampere
c) Electric current 3) Candela
d) Mass 4) Kelvin
a b c d
A). 3 4 1 2
B). 1 2 4 3
C). 4 3 2 1
D). 2 1 4 3
Answer: 4 3 2 1
1449). Faraday's laws of electrolysis are related to
A). Atomic number of the cation
B). Atomic number of the anion
C). Equivalent weight of the electrolyte
D). Speed of the cation
Answer: Equivalent weight of the electrolyte
1450). Identify the incorrect pair:
I) Length - Scalar
II) Velocity - Vector
III) Weight - Scalar
IV) Momentum - Vector
A). I
B). II
C). III
D). IV
Answer: III
UPSC
June 30, 2020
GENERAL SCIENCE PHYSICS ONE LINERS FOR TNPSC UPSC SSC SET 144
GENERAL SCIENCE PHYSICS ONE LINERS FOR TNPSC UPSC SSC SET 144
1431). Which of the following sets have different dimensions?
A). Pressure, Young's modulus, Stress
B). Emf, potential difference, Electric potential
C). Heat, Work done, Energy
D). Dipole moment, Electric flux, Electric field
Answer: Dipole moment, Electric flux, Electric field
1432). Air pressure is measured with the help of
A). Thermometer
B). Nanometer
C). Mercurial barometer
D). Wind meter
Answer: Mercurial barometer
1433). The force F acting on a body of mass m is =
A). mass / acceleration
B). (mass)^2×acceleration
C). mass×acceleration
D). acceleration / mass
Answer: mass×acceleration
1434). The compound used in photographic film is
A). AgF - silver fluoride
B). AgCl - silver chloride
C). AgBr - silver bromide
D). AgI - silver iodide
Answer: AgBr - silver bromide
1435). Which of the following does not belong to the solar family?
A). Asteriods
B). Comets
C). Planets
D). Nebulae
A). Pressure, Young's modulus, Stress
B). Emf, potential difference, Electric potential
C). Heat, Work done, Energy
D). Dipole moment, Electric flux, Electric field
Answer: Dipole moment, Electric flux, Electric field
1432). Air pressure is measured with the help of
A). Thermometer
B). Nanometer
C). Mercurial barometer
D). Wind meter
Answer: Mercurial barometer
1433). The force F acting on a body of mass m is =
A). mass / acceleration
B). (mass)^2×acceleration
C). mass×acceleration
D). acceleration / mass
Answer: mass×acceleration
1434). The compound used in photographic film is
A). AgF - silver fluoride
B). AgCl - silver chloride
C). AgBr - silver bromide
D). AgI - silver iodide
Answer: AgBr - silver bromide
1435). Which of the following does not belong to the solar family?
A). Asteriods
B). Comets
C). Planets
D). Nebulae
Answer: Nebulae
1436). Which one of the following is not a particle in the nucleus?
A). Neutron
B). Meson
C). Proton
D). Photon
Answer: Photon
1437). Select the pair, which are dimensionally alike among the following
I) Product of force and time
II) Product of momentum and time
III) Product of Ariel velocity and linear density
IV) Product of work and time
A). l and ll only
B). II and III only
C). Ill and IV only
D). I and Ill only
Answer: I and Ill only
1438). Arrange the following in the increasing order of their penetration powers
1) Alpha rays
ll) Beta particles
Ill) Gamma rays
A). I - Il - III
B). II - I - III
C). II - III - I
D). III - II - I
Answer: I - Il - III
1439). Match List - 1 with List - 2 and answer through the codes given below:
List - 1 List 2
a) Infrared spectrometer 1) Measures the purity of sugar
b) Polarimeter 2) Test aeroplane surfaces under stress
c) Barometer 3) Study of molecular structure
d) Strain gauge 4) Measure atmospheric pressure
a b c d
A). 2 4 1 3
B). 2 3 4 1
C). 3 1 4 2
D). 4 3 1 2
Answer: 3 1 4 2
1440). Identify the particle physicist through the clues given below:
1) He won the Nobel Prize in physics for the year 2013 along with Francois Englert
2) He won the Royal Society's Copley medal on 20, July 2015
A). Franck Wikzek
B). Peter. W. Higgs
C). Stephen Hawkings
D). Joseph Taylor
Answer: Peter. W. Higgs
UPSC
June 30, 2020
GENERAL SCIENCE PHYSICS ONE LINERS FOR TNPSC UPSC SSC SET 143
GENERAL SCIENCE PHYSICS ONE LINERS FOR TNPSC UPSC SSC SET 143
1421). When the velocity
of a body is reduced to half its initial value, then the kinetic energy
of the body is reduced by........... its value.
A). 1/3
B). 1/4
C). 1/5
D). 1/2
Answer: 1/4
1422). Match List - l with List - II:
List - I List - II
a) Coulomb's law 1) Magnetic flux
b) Gauss law 2) Magnetic force
c) Lorentz's law 3) Electric flux
d) Faraday's law 4) Electrostatic force
a b c d
A). 3 4 1 2
B). 2 1 4 3
C). 4 3 2 1
D). 1 2 3 4
Answer: 4 3 2 1
1423). Electro Cardiogram (ECG) is a graphic display of the
A). Time - invariant voltages produced by myocardium
B). Time - invariant current produced by myocardium
C). Time - variant voltages produced by myocardium
D). Time - variant current produced by myocardium
Answer: Time - variant voltages produced by myocardium
1424). Match the following:
List - I List - II
a) X-rays 1) Henri Becquerel
b) Electron 2) J.J. Thomson
c) Neutron 3) James Chadwick
d) Natural radioactivity 4) Roentgen
a b c d
A). 4 1 2 3
B). 3 2 4 1
C). 4 2 3 1
D). 2 4 3 1
Answer: 4 2 3 1
1425). The number of generalized co-ordinates required to describe the position of a simple pendulum is
A). 1
B). 2
C). 3
D). 4
Answer: 2
1426). If g is the acceleration due to gravity and R is the radius of the earth, then escape velocity is given by the relation
A). Ve=√2g
B). Ve=2√g
C). Ve=√2Rg
D). Ve=2√Rg
Answer: Ve=√2Rg
1427). The relation connecting Young's modulus (E), Bulk modulus (K) and Rigidity modulus (N) is
A). 9/E=3/N+1/K
B). 9/N=3/E+1/K
C). 9/N=1/E+3/K
D). 9/E=1/N+3/K
Answer: 9/E=3/N+1/K
1428). The S.I. unit of gravitational constant G is
A). N kg^-2
B). Nrn Kg^-1
C). Nrn^2 Kg^1
D). Nrn^2 kg^-2
Answer: Nrn^2 kg^-2
1429). If the time taken tbty a cup of tea to cool from 85°C to 75°C is 1 minute, then the time taken by it to cool from 65°C to 55°C is
A). 50 seconds
B). exactly 1 minute
C). more than 1 minute
D). 30 seconds
Answer: more than 1 minute
1430). The rest mass of a photon is
A). zero
B). infinity
C). dependent on its wavelength
D). dependent on its velocity
Answer: zero
A). 1/3
B). 1/4
C). 1/5
D). 1/2
Answer: 1/4
1422). Match List - l with List - II:
List - I List - II
a) Coulomb's law 1) Magnetic flux
b) Gauss law 2) Magnetic force
c) Lorentz's law 3) Electric flux
d) Faraday's law 4) Electrostatic force
a b c d
A). 3 4 1 2
B). 2 1 4 3
C). 4 3 2 1
D). 1 2 3 4
Answer: 4 3 2 1
1423). Electro Cardiogram (ECG) is a graphic display of the
A). Time - invariant voltages produced by myocardium
B). Time - invariant current produced by myocardium
C). Time - variant voltages produced by myocardium
D). Time - variant current produced by myocardium
Answer: Time - variant voltages produced by myocardium
1424). Match the following:
List - I List - II
a) X-rays 1) Henri Becquerel
b) Electron 2) J.J. Thomson
c) Neutron 3) James Chadwick
d) Natural radioactivity 4) Roentgen
a b c d
A). 4 1 2 3
B). 3 2 4 1
C). 4 2 3 1
D). 2 4 3 1
Answer: 4 2 3 1
1425). The number of generalized co-ordinates required to describe the position of a simple pendulum is
A). 1
B). 2
C). 3
D). 4
Answer: 2
1426). If g is the acceleration due to gravity and R is the radius of the earth, then escape velocity is given by the relation
A). Ve=√2g
B). Ve=2√g
C). Ve=√2Rg
D). Ve=2√Rg
Answer: Ve=√2Rg
1427). The relation connecting Young's modulus (E), Bulk modulus (K) and Rigidity modulus (N) is
A). 9/E=3/N+1/K
B). 9/N=3/E+1/K
C). 9/N=1/E+3/K
D). 9/E=1/N+3/K
Answer: 9/E=3/N+1/K
1428). The S.I. unit of gravitational constant G is
A). N kg^-2
B). Nrn Kg^-1
C). Nrn^2 Kg^1
D). Nrn^2 kg^-2
Answer: Nrn^2 kg^-2
1429). If the time taken tbty a cup of tea to cool from 85°C to 75°C is 1 minute, then the time taken by it to cool from 65°C to 55°C is
A). 50 seconds
B). exactly 1 minute
C). more than 1 minute
D). 30 seconds
Answer: more than 1 minute
1430). The rest mass of a photon is
A). zero
B). infinity
C). dependent on its wavelength
D). dependent on its velocity
Answer: zero
UPSC
June 30, 2020
GENERAL SCIENCE PHYSICS ONE LINERS FOR TNPSC UPSC SSC SET 142
GENERAL SCIENCE PHYSICS ONE LINERS FOR TNPSC UPSC SSC SET 142
1411). Pick out the correct statement from the following Action and Reaction
A). Act on two different objects
B). Have equal magnitude
C). Have opposite direction
D). Resultant is NOT zero
Answer: Resultant is NOT zero
1412). Assertion (A): Egg heaters have long handles.
Reason (R): To produce large turning effect with small force.
A). A is correct and R also correct explanation of A
B). A is correct and R is wrong explanation of A
C). A is wrong and R is correct
D). Both A and R are wrong
Answer: A is correct and R also correct explanation of A
1413). Match the following:
List - I List - ll
a) Traffic control vehicles 1) Ohm's law
b) Relation between current and potential difference 2) Joule's law
c) Electric Iron Box 3) Rayleigh law
d) Rainbow 4) Doppler's effect
Codes:
a b c d
A). 4 1 2 3
B). 2 3 1 4
C). 3 4 2 1
D). 4 2 1 3
A). Act on two different objects
B). Have equal magnitude
C). Have opposite direction
D). Resultant is NOT zero
Answer: Resultant is NOT zero
1412). Assertion (A): Egg heaters have long handles.
Reason (R): To produce large turning effect with small force.
A). A is correct and R also correct explanation of A
B). A is correct and R is wrong explanation of A
C). A is wrong and R is correct
D). Both A and R are wrong
Answer: A is correct and R also correct explanation of A
1413). Match the following:
List - I List - ll
a) Traffic control vehicles 1) Ohm's law
b) Relation between current and potential difference 2) Joule's law
c) Electric Iron Box 3) Rayleigh law
d) Rainbow 4) Doppler's effect
Codes:
a b c d
A). 4 1 2 3
B). 2 3 1 4
C). 3 4 2 1
D). 4 2 1 3
Answer: 4 1 2 3
1414). Capillarity of a liquid is due to
A). its elastic property
B). gravity
C). its surface tension
D). its mass
Answer: its surface tension
1415). Consider the following statements:
Assertion (A): One cannot hear any
sound in space.
Reason (R): In the absence of medium, no sound waves can
travel
A). Both (A) and (R) are individually true but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A)
B). Both (A) and (R) are individually true but (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
C). (A) is true but (R) is false
D). (A) is false but (R) is true
Answer: Both (A) and (R) are individually true but (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
1416). Which of these spectral line series lie in the near infrared region of spectrum?
A). Lyman
B). Balmer
C). Paschen
D). Pfund
Answer: Paschen
1417). Match the following:
Technology Scientific Principles
a) Aeroplane 1) Newton's Law
b) Air Balloon 2) Bernoulli's Principle
c) Rocket 3) Law of thermo dynamics
d) Steam Engine 4) Buoyant Force
Codes:
a b c d
A). 1 3 2 4
B). 3 1 4 2
C). 4 2 3 1
D). 2 4 1 3
Answer: 2 4 1 3
1418). Which of the following are correct?
I) Work = Force x Displacement
II) Power = Work / Time
III)Force = Mass x Velocity
IV) Acceleration = Velocity/Time
A). I,II and III
B). II, III and IV
C). I, Ill and IV
D). I, II and IV
Answer: I, II and IV
1419). Why the wings of an aeroplane are shaped with lower surface being flat and the upper surface being curved?
A). To reduce vibration
B). To make difference in pressure to lift the plane vertically
C). To accommodate more passengers in the wing
D). To strengthen the wheels fitted in wings
Answer: To make difference in pressure to lift the plane vertically
1420). Match the following:
Famous Indian Scientist Their Contribution
a) C.V.Raman 1) Ultra Short Radio Waves
b) J.C.Bose 2) Thermal Ionization
c) M.N. Saha 3) Quantum Statistics
d) SN. Bose 4) Inelastic Scattering of Light
Codes:
a b c d
A). 1 2 3 4
B). 2 3 4 1
C). 3 4 1 2
D). 4 1 2 3
Answer: 4 1 2 3
A). Both (A) and (R) are individually true but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A)
B). Both (A) and (R) are individually true but (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
C). (A) is true but (R) is false
D). (A) is false but (R) is true
Answer: Both (A) and (R) are individually true but (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
1416). Which of these spectral line series lie in the near infrared region of spectrum?
A). Lyman
B). Balmer
C). Paschen
D). Pfund
Answer: Paschen
1417). Match the following:
Technology Scientific Principles
a) Aeroplane 1) Newton's Law
b) Air Balloon 2) Bernoulli's Principle
c) Rocket 3) Law of thermo dynamics
d) Steam Engine 4) Buoyant Force
Codes:
a b c d
A). 1 3 2 4
B). 3 1 4 2
C). 4 2 3 1
D). 2 4 1 3
Answer: 2 4 1 3
1418). Which of the following are correct?
I) Work = Force x Displacement
II) Power = Work / Time
III)Force = Mass x Velocity
IV) Acceleration = Velocity/Time
A). I,II and III
B). II, III and IV
C). I, Ill and IV
D). I, II and IV
Answer: I, II and IV
1419). Why the wings of an aeroplane are shaped with lower surface being flat and the upper surface being curved?
A). To reduce vibration
B). To make difference in pressure to lift the plane vertically
C). To accommodate more passengers in the wing
D). To strengthen the wheels fitted in wings
Answer: To make difference in pressure to lift the plane vertically
1420). Match the following:
Famous Indian Scientist Their Contribution
a) C.V.Raman 1) Ultra Short Radio Waves
b) J.C.Bose 2) Thermal Ionization
c) M.N. Saha 3) Quantum Statistics
d) SN. Bose 4) Inelastic Scattering of Light
Codes:
a b c d
A). 1 2 3 4
B). 2 3 4 1
C). 3 4 1 2
D). 4 1 2 3
Answer: 4 1 2 3
UPSC
June 30, 2020
GENERAL SCIENCE PHYSICS ONE LINERS FOR TNPSC UPSC SSC SET 141
GENERAL SCIENCE PHYSICS ONE LINERS FOR TNPSC UPSC SSC SET 141
1401). When a cube of ice floating in a beaker of water melts, the level of water in the beaker
A). Increases
B). Decreases
C). Remains the same
D). Increases initially but then falls down
Answer: Remains the same
1402). If a particle could move with the velocity of light, the value of its kinetic energy would be
A). zero
B). 0.5 C
C). C
D).∝
A). Increases
B). Decreases
C). Remains the same
D). Increases initially but then falls down
Answer: Remains the same
1402). If a particle could move with the velocity of light, the value of its kinetic energy would be
A). zero
B). 0.5 C
C). C
D).∝
Answer : ∝
1403). Size of a nucleus depends on
A). Number of neutrons
B). Number of protons
C). Number of nucleons
D). Number of nucleons and electrons
Answer: Number of nucleons
1404). Match the following:
List - I List - ll
a) Amp-m^2 1) Current density
b) Newton / amp-metre 2) Magnetic flux density
c) Coulomb/m^2 3) Electric displacement
d) Amp/m^2 4) Magnetic displacement
Codes:
a b c d
A). 1 2 3 4
B). 4 2 3 1
C). 4 3 2 1
D). 2 3 1 4
Answer: 4 2 3 1
1405). A person is sitting in a travelling train and facing the engine. He tosses up a coin and the coin falls behind him. It can be concluded that the train is:
A). Moving backward with uniform speed
B). Moving forward with uniform speed
C). Moving forward and suddenly losing speed
D). Moving forward and suddenly gaining speed
Answer: Moving forward and suddenly losing speed
1406). Choose the correct answer from the following.
The instrument used to measure the minute distance is:
A). Metre scale
B). Inch tape
C). Vernier Caliper
D). Micrometer gauge
Answer: Micrometer gauge
1407). Hydrogen filled balloon flies high in air because
a) Weight of the balloon is much lesser than the weight of the air it displaces.
b) Weight of the balloon is greater than the weight of air it displaces.
c) The difference between the weights doesn't give the power to lift.
d) Density of air is 14 times greater than hydrogen.
A). a is wrong
B). b is correct
C). c is correct
D). both a and d is correct
Answer: both a and d is correct
1408). Assertion (A): Electric fish generates powerful electric shocks.
Reason (R): It lives in Orinoco river.
A). Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
B). Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
C). (A) is true, but (R) is false
D). (A) is false but (R) is true
Answer: Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
1409). The listener is at rest with respect to the sources of sound. A wind starts blowing along the line joining the source and the observer which of the following quantities do not change.
A). Frequency and wave length
B). Velocity and time period
C). Velocity and wave length
D). Frequency and time period
Answer: Frequency and time period
1410). Assertion (A): Rice cooker takes longer time to cook at Mount Everest.
Reason (R): As altitude increases pressure increases
A). A is true R is false
B). A is false R is true
C). A and R are false
D). A and R are true
Answer: A is true R is false
UPSC
June 30, 2020
INDIAN FEDERALISM MCQS SET 14
INDIAN FEDERALISM MCQS SET 14
131) The legal adviser to a State Government is known as theA) Advocate General
B) Attorney General
C) Solicitor General
D) Public Prosecutor
Answer: Advocate General
132) Under the original Constitution the States were classified into __ categories.
A) two
B) three
C) four
D) five
Answer: three
133) A few members of the Legislative Council are nominated by the
A) Governor of the State
B) Chief Minister
C) Chairman of the Council
D) Speaker of the State Assembly
Answer: Governor of the State
134) The Union Territory having five official languages is
A) Lakshadweep
B) Chandigarh
C) Delhi
D) Puducherry
Answer: Puducherry
135) The emoluments of the Chairman and Deputy Chairman of a State Legislative Council are fixed by the
A) State Governor
B) State Legislature
C) State Public Service Commission
D) Union Parliament
Answer: State Legislature
136) The Legislative Council has a tenure of:
A) 6 years
B) 5 years
C) 4 years
D) A permanent nature
Answer: A permanent nature
137) Ministers of State
A) can attend Cabinet meetings in their own right
B) can attend Cabinet meetings only if invited to attend any particular meeting
C) can attend Cabinet meetings if they choose
D) cannot attend Cabinet meetings under any circumstances
Answer: can attend Cabinet meetings only if invited to attend any particular meeting
138) Who among the following is/are not appointed by a State Governor?
A) Chief Minister
B) Members of the State Public Service Commission
C) High Court Judges
D) Advocate General
Answer: High Court Judges
139) Voting in local bodies elections is compulsory in which one of the following states?
A) Delhi
B) Maharashtra
C) Kerala
D) Gujarat
Answer: Gujarat
140) EVM stands for:
A) Election Validation Machine
B) Electronic Voting Machine
C) Electronic Validation Management
D) Early Voting Movement
Answer: Electronic Voting Machine
UPSC
June 30, 2020
INDIAN FEDERALISM MCQS SET 13
INDIAN FEDERALISM MCQS SET 13
121) Reserved seats exist in a State Assembly forA) backward classes
B) women
C) minorities
D) Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes
Answer: Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes
122) Besides Punjab which other State has been under President's rule nine times after its formation?
A) Kerala
B) Tamil Nadu
C) Rajasthan
D) Odisha
Answer: Kerala
123) A State Governor has
A) diplomatic powers
B) military powers
C) emergency powers
D) No diplomatic or military or emergency powers
Answer: No diplomatic or military or emergency powers
124) The Governor holds once for__ years from the date of assumption of office.
A) three
B) four
C) five
D) six
Answer: five
125) The Governor is the __ of the Universities in the State.
A) Chancellor
B) Pro-Chancellor
C) Vice-Chancellor
D) Chief Executive
Answer: Chancellor
126) The executive power of the State is vested in the ___.
A) Governor
B) Chief Minister
C) Neither of them
D) Both of them
Answer: Governor
127) The authority to dissolve a State Legislative Assembly is vested in the
A) Chief Minister of the State
B) Speaker of the State Assembly
C) President of India
D) Governor of the State
Answer: Governor of the State
128) A State Governor enjoys
A) No discretionary powers
B) discretionary powers in certain matters
C) extensive discretionary powers
D) discretionary powers during an Emergency
Answer: discretionary powers in certain matters
129) During the temporary absence of a Governor the ____ is appointed to officiate as Governor
A) Chief Secretary
B) Chairman of the State Legislative Council
C) Speaker of the State Assembly
D) Chief Justice of the State High Court
Answer: Chief Justice of the State High Court
130) Chief Minister remains in power as along as he enjoys the confidence of the
A) Prime Minister
B) Governor
C) State Legislative Assembly
D) People of the State
Answer: State Legislative Assembly
UPSC
June 30, 2020
INDIAN FEDERALISM MCQS SET 12
INDIAN FEDERALISM MCQS SET 12
111) Which of the following statements with regard to the Federal System is/are correct?1. In a federation, two sets of governments co-exist and there is distribution of power.
2. There is a written constitution.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) Both 1 and 2
D) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: Both 1 and 2
112) Which one among the following pairs is not correctly matched?
A) Union List : Banking
B) State List : Agriculture
C) Concurrent List : Marriage
D) Residuary List : Education
Answer: Residuary List : Education
113) On which one of the following lists of subjects is the Union Parliament competent to
legislate?
A) Concurrent list
B) Residuary subjects
C) Union list
D) On all these
Answer: On all these
114) In which one of the following cases the Supreme Court of India gave verdicts which have a
direct bearing on the Centre-State relations?
A) Keshavananda Bharati case
B) Vishakha case
C) S. R. Bommai case
D) Indira Sawhney case
Answer: S. R. Bommai case
115) Which one among the following pairs of level of government and legislative power is not
correctly matched?
A) Central government : Union List
B) Local governments : Residuary powers
C) State governments : State List
D) Central and State governments : Concurrent List
Answer: Local governments : Residuary powers
116) The role of the Finance Commission in Centre State fiscal relations has been undermined by the
A) State Governments
B) Zonal Councils
C) Planning Commission
D) Election Commission
Answer: Planning Commission
117) With reference to the Finance Commission of India. which of the following statements is correct?
A) It encourages the inflow of foreign capital for infrastructure development
B) It facilitates the proper distribution of finances among the Public Sector Undertakings
C) It ensures transparency in financial administration
D) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct in this context
Answer: None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct in this context
118) The Sarkaria Commission dealing with the Center-State relationship has not laid down which of the following regarding the appointment of Governors?
A) A politician from the ruling party at the Center should not be appointed to a State run by some other party
B) The person shouldn't be too closely connected with the politics of the State where he is to be posted
C) He should have travelled extensively in and out of India
D) He should be eminent in some walk of life.
Answer: He should have travelled extensively in and out of India
119) The net proceeds of taxes are distributed between the Centre and the States on the recommendations of the:
A) Union Finance Ministry
B) Finance Commission .
C) Planning Commission
D) Comptroller and Auditor General
Answer: Finance Commission .
120) The Returning Officers for the State Assembly Elections are appointed by the
A) President
B) Governor
C) Election Commission
D) Chief Electoral Officer
Answer: Election Commission
UPSC
June 30, 2020
INDIAN FEDERALISM MCQS SET 11
INDIAN FEDERALISM MCQS SET 11
101) Put in the correct order of their creation:I. Assam II. Nagaland
III. Goa IV. Mizoram
A) I, II, III, IV
B) II, I, IV, III
C) I, II, IV, III
D) I, IV, II, III
Answer: I, II, IV, III
102) The Sarkaria Commission dealing with the Centre-State .relationship has not laid down
which of the following regarding the appointment of Governors?
A) A politician from the ruling party at the Centre should not be appointed to a State run by some other party
B) The person should not be too closely connected with the politics of the State where he is to be posted
C) He should have travelled extensively in and out of India
D) He should be eminent in some walk of life
Answer: He should have travelled extensively in and out of India
103) English is the official language of which of the following States?
A) Manipur
B) Nagaland
C) Karnataka
D) Andhra Pradesh
Answer: Nagaland
104) Which one of the following was an associate State of India before becoming a full fledged State?
A) Meghalaya
B) Mizoram
C) Sikkim
D) Manipur
Answer: Sikkim
105) Match the following
Year of Creation States
Arunachal Pradesh 1. 22nd State
Goa 2. 23rd State
Mizoram 3. 24th State
Sikkim 4. 25th State
Below codes are given in A B C D order
A) 1 3 4 2
B) 3 4 2 1
C) 2 1 4 3
D) 4 3 1 2
Answer: 3 4 2 1
106) Which of the following features is/are contrary to the norms of a federal polity?
1. Common All lndia Service
2. Single integrated judiciary
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) Both 1 and 2
D) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: Both 1 and 2
107) A special category State invariably
A) is a border State
B) has harsh terrain
C) has low literacy rate
D) has poor infrastructure
Answer: has poor infrastructure
108) The vesting of 'residuary' powers in the central government by the Constitution of India indicates
A) that India is a federal polity
B) that India is neither federal nor unitary
C) that India is quasi federal
D) unitary character of Indian polity
Answer: that India is quasi federal
109) Who of the following shall cause every recommendation made by the Finance Commission to be laid before each House of Parliament?
A) The President of India
B) The Speaker of Lok Sabha
C) The Prime Minister of lndia
D) The Union Finance Minister
Answer: The President of India
110) In the Constitution of India, the word 'Federal' is used in
A) the Preamble
B) Part III
C) Article 368
D) Nowhere
Answer: Nowhere
UPSC
June 30, 2020
INDIAN FEDERALISM MCQS SET 10
INDIAN FEDERALISM MCQS SET 10
91) What was the status of Sikkim at the commencement of the Constitution?A) An independent State
B) A part B State
C) An independent kingdom attached to India by a special treaty
D) A part C State
Answer: An independent kingdom attached to India by a special treaty
92) When did the hrst linguistic State of Andhra come into existence?
A) October1, 1953
B) October 2, 1953
C) October 2, 1953
D) July 4, 1956
Answer: October1, 1953
93) For those Union Territories, which have no Legislative Councils of their own, laws are passed by:
A) Union Ministry
B) President, through the appointed Administrator
C) Parliament
D) Appointed Administrator
Answer: President, through the appointed Administrator
94) Which of the following does not give correctly the name of the original State out of whose territory the new State was created?
A) Andhra Pradesh from the State of Madras
B) Arunachal Pradesh from Assam
C) Meghalaya from Assam
D) Goa from Maharashtra
Answer: Goa from Maharashtra
95) The States Reorganisation Act created_____States and ___ Union Territories.
A) 0.588194444444444
B) 0.5875
C) 0.629861111111111
D) 0.629166666666667
Answer: 0.5875
96) Which of the following were Union Territone before becoming States?
I. Himachal Pradesh II. Manipur
III. Sikkim IV. Tripura
A) I, II and IV
B) I and II
C) II and III
D) I and III
Answer: I, II and IV
97) Which of the following did India acquire from France?
A) Yanam
B) Mahe
C) Karaikal
D) All of these
Answer: All of these
98) Which one of the following is not administered by a Lieutenant Governor?
A) Delhi
B) Puducherry
C) Chandigarh
D) Andaman and Nicobar
Answer: Chandigarh
99) The old name of which State/Union Territory is wrongly given?
A) Karnataka-Mysore
B) Tamil Nadu-Madras
C) Lakshadweep-Laccadive, Minicoy and Amindiv Islands
D) Meghalaya-Eastern Hill Province
Answer: Meghalaya-Eastern Hill Province
100) Which of the following States and the year of their creation is incorrectly matched?
A) Andhra Pradesh : 1956
B) Maharashtra :1960
C) Arunachal Pradesh :1987
D) Goa :1987
Answer: Andhra Pradesh : 1956
UPSC
June 30, 2020
INDIAN FEDERALISM MCQS SET 09
INDIAN FEDERALISM MCQS SET 09
81) The authority empowered to make laws in respect of matters not enumerated in any of three lists is/are:A) State Legislatures
B) Union Parliament
C) Union Parliament and State Legislatures
D) The Advocate General of the States
Answer: Union Parliament
82) An Advocate General of a State is entitled to appear before:
A) any court of law within the country
B) any court of law within the State
C) the Supreme Court of India
D) District and Sessions Courts
Answer: any court of law within the State
83) Both Union and State Legislature can legislate on :
A) criminal law and procedure
B) marriage, contracts and torts
C) economic and social planning
D) All of the above
Answer: All of the above
84) Which of the following is not included in the State List in the Constitution of India?
A) Police
B) Prison
C) Law and Order
D) Criminal Procedure Code
Answer: Criminal Procedure Code
85) Which of the following items comes under the Concurrent List?
A) Inter-State rivers
B) Trade Unions
C) Citizenship
D) Local Government
Answer: Trade Unions
86) Match the following
Year of Creation States
1960 1. Sikkim
1962 2. Goa
1975 3. Maharashtra
1987 4. Nagaland
Below codes are given in A B C D order
A) 2 4 3 1
B) 3 4 1 2
C) 4 3 2 1
D) 3 4 2 1
Answer: 3 4 1 2
87) The first State to become bifurcated after independence was:
A) Madras
B) Bombay
C) Punjab
D) Assam
Answer: Madras
88) When the Madras State was renamed Tamil Nadu?
A) 1969
B) 1970
C) 1968
D) 1971
Answer: 1969
89) Which of the following Union Territories attained statehood in February, 1987?
A) Goa
B) Arunachal Pradesh
C) Pondicherry
D) Daman and Diu
Answer: Goa
90) The State of Bombay was bifurcated into Maharashtra and Gujarat on May 1, in the year:
A) 1958
B) 1959
C) 1962
D) 1960
Answer: 1960
UPSC
June 30, 2020
INDIAN FEDERALISM MCQS SET 08
INDIAN FEDERALISM MCQS SET 08
71) Which of the following taxes is exclusively and totally assigned to the Central Government by the ConstitutionA) Estate Duty
B) Sales Tax
C) Corporation Tax
D) Taxes on Railway fares and freight
Answer: Taxes on Railway fares and freight
72) Which among the following has not been Included in the list of languages under the 8th Schedule of the Constitution of India?
A) Urdu
B) Sanskrit
C) Sindhi
D) English
Answer: English
73) Which of the following is in the Concurrent List in the Constitution of India?
A) Population control and family planning
B) Public health and sanitation
C) Capitation taxes
D) None of the above
Answer: Population control and family planning
74) Which subject was transferred from State List to Concurrent List by the 42nd amendment of the Constitution?
A) Agriculture
B) Education
C) Irrigation
D) Local Self Government
Answer: Education
75) Lotteries organised by the government of a State come under
A) Union List
B) State List
C) Concurrent List
D) no list mentioned in the Seventh Schedule
Answer: State List
76) In lndia both direct and indirect taxes are levied by the Central and State Government.
Which of the following is levied by the State Governments?
A) Excise Duty on liquor
B) Capital gains Tax
C) Customs Duty
D) Corporation Tax
Answer: Excise Duty on liquor
77) State Assembly elections are conducted by the
A) Chief Secretary of the State concerned
B) Chief Election Commissioner
C) Governor of the State concerned
D) Chief Minister of the State concerned
Answer: Chief Election Commissioner
78) The largest contribution to the total combined annual tax revenue of the Centre States and Union Territories in India is made by:
A) Sales tax
B) Income and Corporation Tax
C) Custom duties
D) Union Excise duties
Answer: Union Excise duties
79) Corporation Tax:
A) is levied by the Union and collected and appropriated by the States
B) is levied by the Union and belongs to it exclusively
C) is levied and appropriated by the States
D) is levied by the Union and shared by the Union and the States
Answer: is levied by the Union and belongs to it exclusively
80) Agricultural Income Tax is assigned to the State Governments by:
A) the Constitution of India
B) the National Development Council
C) the Finance Commission
D) the Inter-State Council
Answer: the Constitution of India
UPSC
June 30, 2020
INDIAN FEDERALISM MCQS SET 07
INDIAN FEDERALISM MCQS SET 07
61) With reference to the Constitution of India, which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?A) Forests : Concurrent List
B) Stock Exchanges : Concurrent List
C) Post Office Savings Bank : Union List
D) Public Health : State List
Answer: Stock Exchanges : Concurrent List
62) In India both direct taxes are levied by the Central and States governments. Which of
the following is levied by the State government?
A) Excise duty on liquor
B) Custom duty
C) Corporation Tax
D) Capital gains tax
Answer: Excise duty on liquor
63) Which of the following matters are not included in the Union List?
I. Defence II. Prisons
III. Liquor policy IV. Minor Ports
V. Irrigation
A) III and IV
B) III, IV and V
C) II, Ill, IV and V
D) II, III and V
Answer: II, III and V
64) Match the following:
Union List 1. Banking
State List 2. Public order and police
Concurrent List 3. Labour Welfare
Below codes are given in A B C order
A) 2 1 3
B) 1 2 3
C) 1 3 2
D) 3 2 1
Answer: 1 2 3
65) The State can legislate on subjects in the:
1. State List 2. Union List
3. Concurrent List 4. Residuary List
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 only
C) 1, 3 and 4
D) 1 and 3
Answer: 1 and 3
66) Which of the following is not in the State List under the Constitution of India?
A) Fisheries
B) Agriculture
C) Insurance
D) Gambling
Answer: Insurance
67) Consider the following subjects. Which of them are included in the Concurrent List of the Constitution?
1. Education 2. Electricity
3. Fisheries 4. Police
5. Corporation tax
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 2 and 3 only
C) 1, 3 and 4 only
D) 2 and 4 only
Answer: 1 and 2 only
68) Railways is a subject on the:
A) Concurrent List
B) Union List
C) State List
D) Residual List
Answer: Union List
69) Match the following :
Taxes on income other than agricultural income 1. State list
Estate duty in respect of agricultural land 2. Residuary power
Inter planetary outer space travel 3. Concurrent List
Acquisition and requisitioning of property 4. Union List
Below codes are given in A B C D order
A) 4 3 2 1
B) 4 1 2 3
C) 2 3 1 4
D) 3 2 4 1
Answer: 4 1 2 3
70) Which of the following is regarded as an essential function of the State?
A) To run schools for education
B) To provide defence against external attacks
C) To prevent diseases
D) To maintain good roads
Answer: To provide defence against external attacks
UPSC
June 30, 2020
INDIAN FEDERALISM MCQS SET 06
INDIAN FEDERALISM MCQS SET 06
51) The Head of the State of Jammu and Kashmir was redesignated Governor in 1965. Earlier,he was known as
A) Maharaja
B) Prime Minister
C) Rajpramukh
D) Sadar-i-Riyasat
Answer: Sadar-i-Riyasat
52) An amendment of the Constitution of India can extend to Jammu and Kashmir:
A) automatically
B) only if ratified by State Legislature
C) by an order of the President under Article 370
D) under no circumstance
Answer: by an order of the President under Article 370
53) A proclamation of Emergency by the President:
A) cannot apply to Jammu and Kashmir
B) shall have effect in Jammu and Kashmir only on the concurrence of the State Legislature
C) shall apply to Jammu and Kashmir only on endorsement by its Governor
D) has to be separately issued for Jammu and Kashmir
Answer: shall have effect in Jammu and Kashmir only on the concurrence of the State Legislature
54) When can Parliament legislate on a subject in the State List? .
I. If Lok Sabha passes a 'resolution by two thirds majority that it is in national interest to do so.
II. When the legislatures of two or more States request Parliament to legislate on a State subject.
III. Under a proclamation of Emergency.
A) I and III
B) II and III
C) I, II and III
D) I and II
Answer: II and III
55) Which of the following taxes is/are levied by the Union and collected and appropriated
by the States?
A) Stamp Duties
B) Passenger and Goods Tax
C) Estate Duty
D) Taxes on Newspapers
Answer: Stamp Duties
56) The total number of members in the Legislative Council of a State shall not exceed __ of the total number of members in the State Legislative Assembly.
A) One fourth
B) One half
C) One third
D) One fifth
Answer: One third
57) In which one of the following States, it is constitutionally obligatory for the State to have
a separate minister for tribal welfare?
A) Odisha
B) Jharkhand
C) Madhya Pradesh
D) All of them
Answer: All of them
58) The Central Government can issue directions to the States with regard to the:
I. Union List
II. State List
III. Concurrent List
A) I only
B) I and III
C) II and III
D) I, II and III
Answer: I and III
59) The Union Territories are administered by the
A) Parliament
B) Union Council of Ministers
C) President, through administrator appointed by him
D) Prime Minister
Answer: President, through administrator appointed by him
60) Match the following :
Passport 1. State List
Electricity 2. Union List
Animal Husbandry 3. Concurrent List
Below codes are given in A B C D order
A) 2 3 1 1
B) 2 3 1 2
C) 2 3 1 3
D) 1 2 3 3
Answer: 2 3 1 2
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