April 2020 - Magme Guru

Thursday, April 30, 2020

GK-WORLD HISTORY MCQS PART 08

World History April 30, 2020

GK-WORLD HISTORY MCQS PART 08

GK-WORLD HISTORY MCQS PART 08

1. When was Xerxes I murdered?
A) 465 BC
b) 460 BC
c) 449 BC
d) 447 BC

2. When did Greco-Persian Wars end?
A) 460 BC
b) 449 BC
c) 447 BC
d) 424 BC

3. When was the building of the Parthenon at Athens started?
A) 447 BC
b) 424 BC
c) 404 BC
d) 399 BC

4. When did Nanda dynasty come into power?
A) 424 BC
b) 404 BC
c) 399 BC
d) 385 BC

5. Who defeated Darius III in the Battle of Gaugamela?
A) Alexander the Great
b) Aristotle
c) Julius Caesar
d) Napoleon Bonaparte

6. When did Alexander the Great die?
A) 399 BC
b) 385 BC
c) 335 BC
d) 323 BC

7. Who founded the philosophy of Stoicism in Athens?
a) Chrysippus
b) Cleanthes
c) Epictetus
d) Zeno of Citium

8. When was the construction of Great Wall of China started?
A) 294 BC
b) 252 BC
c) 249 BC
d) 221 BC

9. Who was the founder of the Satavahana dynasty?
A) Gautamiputra Satakarni
b) Demarches
c) Nahapana
d) Simuka

10. When was Han Dynasty established?
A) 220 BC
b) 209 BC
c) 208 BC
d) 206 BC

Answer Keys:
1.A
2.B
3.A
4.A
5.A
6.D
7.D
8.D
9.D
10.D

GK-WORLD HISTORY MCQS PART 07

World History April 30, 2020

GK-WORLD HISTORY MCQS PART 07

GK-WORLD HISTORY MCQS PART 07

1. When did Magadha empire riseas the dominant power?
A) 546 BC
b) 544 BC
c) 539 BC
d) 529 BC

2. When did Cyrus the Great die?
A) 539 BC
b) 529 BC
c) 525 BC
d) 512 BC

3. When did Cambyses II conquer Egypt?
A) 525 BC
b) 512 BC
c) 509 BC
d) 508 BC

4. When was Roman Republic founded?
A) 512 BC
b) 509 BC
c) 508 BC
d) 500 BC

5. Who is the father of Athenian democracy?
a) Cleisthenes
b) Draco
c) Hippias
d) Peisistratos

6. Who developed system ranks of binary patterns?
a) Baudhayana
b) Aryabhata
c) Mahavira
d) Pingala

7. When did Battle of Marathon take place?
A) 490 BC
b) 480 BC
c) 479 BC
d) 475 BC

8. When did King Leonidas die?
A) 480 BC
b) 479 BC
c) 475 BC
d) 469 BC

9. When did Warring States period begin in China?
A) 479 BC
b) 475 BC
c) 469 BC
d) 465 BC

10. When was Socrates born?
A) 469 BC
b) 465 BC
c) 460 BC
d) 449 BC

Answer Keys:
1.B
2.B
3.A
4.B
5.A
6.D
7.A
8.A
9.B
10.A

GK-WORLD HISTORY MCQS PART 06

World History April 30, 2020

GK-WORLD HISTORY MCQS PART 06

GK-WORLD HISTORY MCQS PART 06

1. Who is the author of "From the Founding of the City"?
a) Cicero
b) Livy
c) Polybius
d) Sallust

2. The Peloponnesian War was fought between which cities?
a) Athens and Macedonia
b) Carthage and Athens
c)Sparta and Carthage
d) Sparta and Athens

3. When were ancient Olympic games held first?
a) 776 BC
b) 780 BC
c) 790 BC
d) 800 BC

4. Who is known as the father of Modern Medicine?
a) Erastosthenes
b) Euclid
c) Hippocrates
d) Pythagoras

5. When was ancient Rome founded?
A) 776 BC
b) 753 BC
c) 752 BC
d) 742 BC

6. When did the rise of Median Empire occur?
A) 745 BC
b) 722 BC
c) 750 BC
d) 728 BC

7. When was Nineveh destructed?
A) 612 BC
b) 600 BC
c) 599 BC
d) 563 BC

8. When did sixteen Mahan Janapadas emerge?
A) 600 BC
b) 599 BC
c) 563 BC
d) 551 BC

9. Who was the founder of Buddhism?
a) Amanda
b) Devadatta
c) Mahakasyapa
d) Siddhartha Gautama

10. Who founded the Achaemenid Empire?
A) Alexander the Great
b) Cambyses II
c) Cyrus the Great
d) Darius

Answer Keys:
1.B
2.D
3.A
4.C
5.B
6.D
7.A
8.A
9.D
10.C

GK-WORLD HISTORY MCQS PART 05

World History April 30, 2020

GK-WORLD HISTORY MCQS PART 05

GK-WORLD HISTORY MCQS PART 05

1. The historical monument Al Khazneh is located in which city?
A .Giza
B. Tehran
C. Baghdad
D. Petra

2. Who started the construction of Colosseum in Rome?
A.Nero
B. Betties
C.Victor
D.Vespasian

3. The first news paper in the world was started by?
A. Japan
B. China
C.USA
D. India

4. Adolf Hitler committed suicide in?
A .1944
B.1945
C.1946
D.1947

5. Before independence Ukraine was part of?
A .USA
B. Britain
C. China
D.USSR

6. Whose model is based on the Mandate of Heaven?
a) Ban Go
b) Li Ling
c) Qin Shi Huang
d) Sima Qian

7. Who is the founder of Greek historiography?
a) Aristotle
b) Herodotus
c) Hippocrates
d) Thucydides

8. Who is the author of "The History of the World-Conquerer"?
a) Annemarie Schimmel
b) Clifford Edmund Bosworth
c) Gustaf John Ramstedt
d) John Andrew Boyle

9. Who discovered Troy?
a) Arthur Evans
b) Frank Calvert
c)Heinrich Schliemann
d) Homer

10. Who was the first to distinguish between cause and immediate origins of an event?
a) Herodotus
b) Pericles
c) Plutarch
d) Thucydides

Answer Keys:
1.D
2.D
3.B
4.B
5.D
6.D
7.B
8.D
9.C
10.D

GK-WORLD HISTORY MCQS PART 04

World History April 30, 2020

GK-WORLD HISTORY MCQS PART 04

GK-WORLD HISTORY MCQS PART 04

1. Russian revolutionary, who founded the Communist Party was
A. Karl Marx
B. Stalin
C .Lenin
D. Trotsky

2. Who is also known as the founder of scientific socialism?
A. Karl Marx
B. Lenin
C. Rousseau
D. Engels

3. Who said that “Man is a political animal”?
A .Aristotle
B. Karl Marx
C. Lenin
D. Plato

4. In which country Aztec civilization was originated?
A .Greece
B.USA
C. Mexico
D.Egypt

5. Who was the Emperor of Russia during Russia revolution?
A .Nicholas I
B. Nicholas II
C. Alexander I
D. Alexander II

6. What is the name first Roman Emperor?
A. Claudius
B. Augustus
C. Caligula
D. Nero

7. Who is known as "Father of History”?
A .Mark Antony
B. Nero
C. Herodotus
D.Homer

8. What is the name of autobiography of Adolf Hitler?
A. First Attack
B. Mein Kampf
C.My Spirit
D.Ray of Hope

9. Who was the last Emperor of Rome ?
A. Nero
B. Ceaser
C. Romulus Augustulus
D. Julius

10. The Parliament of Great Britain was formed in the year?
A.1705
B.1706
C.1707
D.1708

Answer Keys:
1.C
2.A
3.A
4.C
5.B
6.B
7.C
8.B
9.C
10.C

GK-WORLD HISTORY MCQS PART 03

World History April 30, 2020

GK-WORLD HISTORY MCQS PART 03

GK-WORLD HISTORY MCQS PART 03

1. In which year American Independence was acknowledged by England?
A .1782
B.1783
C.1784
D.1785

2. French Revolution was started in the Year?
A.1786
B.1787
C.1788
D.1789

3. Young Italy movement by led by two revolutionaries, one was "Mazzini" and other was?
A .Garibaldi
B. Victor
C. Emmanuel
D. Louis

4. Rome was liberated by the Italian soldiers in the year?
A .1869
B.1870
C.1871
D.1872

5. When did World War 2 start?
A .1937
B.1938
C.1939
D.1940

6. When was Bulkan War II fought?
A .1912
B.1913
C.1914
D.1915

7. Who is known as Man of Blood and Iron?
A .Napoleon
B. Bismarck
C. Ho Chi Minh
D. Sir Walter Scott

8. In which year Hitler became the Chancellor of Germany?
A .1932
B.1933
C.1944
D.1945

9. Who was the author of the "American Declaration of Independence”?
A. Jefferson
B. Lafayette
C. George Washington
D.Thomas Paine

10. The Renaissance scientist who explained how planets moved around the sun was?
A. Keller
B. Rebelais
C. Francis Bacorr
D. Gutenberg

Answer Keys:
1.B
2.D
3.A
4.B
5.C
6.B
7.B
8.B
9.A
10.A

GK-WORLD HISTORY MCQS PART 02

World History April 30, 2020

GK-WORLD HISTORY MCQS PART 02

GK-WORLD HISTORY MCQS PART 02

1. In which year Bartholomew Diaz reached Cape of Good Hope?
A.1480
B.1487
C.1495
D.1500

2. Vasco da Gama reached in India in the year ?
A .1495
B.1496
C.1497
D.1498

3. Who was the first to sail round the world?
A .Francis Drake
B. Columbus
C. Magellan
D. Vasco ad Gama

4. America was discovered in?
A .1491
B.1492
C.1493
D.1494

5. Brazil was discovered in?
A.1500
B.1505
C.1510
D.1515

6. Who discovered North Pole?
A .Captain James
B. Magellan
C. Amundsen
D. Robert Peary

7. Magna Carta or The Great Charter was signed in
A .1210
B.1215
C.1220
D.1225

8. Habeas Corpus Act was passed in?
A .1679
B.1683
C.1691
D.1997

9. "Boston Tea Party" incident happened in?
A .1770
B.1771
C.1772
D.1773

10. In which year American Revolution started?
A .1774
B.1775
C.1776
D. 1777

Answer Keys:
1.B
2.D
3.C
4.B
5.A
6.D
7.B
8.A
9.D
10.B

GK-WORLD HISTORY MCQS PART 01

World History April 30, 2020

GK-WORLD HISTORY MCQS PART 01

GK-WORLD HISTORY MCQS PART 01

1. Rivers Tigris and Euphrates are associated with?
A. Mesopotamian Civilization
B. Egyptain Civilization
C. Harappan Civilization
D. Chinese Civilization

2. Which is considered as oldest civilization of the world?
A .Mesopotamian Civilization
B. Egyptian Civilization
C. Harappan Civilization
D. Chinese Civilization

3. Which among following is called "Gift of the Nile”?
A. China
B. India
C. Iraq
D. Egypt

4. Who is considered as the master of Greek comedy?
A .Aeschylus
B.Sophocles.
C.Aristophanes
D.Philip

5. When ancient Olympic games first held ?
A.776 BC
B.780 BC
C.790 BC
D.800 BC

6. Who is known as the father of Modern Medicine ?
A. Euclid
B. Pythagoras
C. Hippocrates
D. Erastosthenes

7. Rome was founded around ?
A .1000 BC
B.1200 BC
C.1400 BC
D.1600 BC

8. Which was not a Roman Philosopher?
A. Cicero
B. Seneca
C.Lucretius
D.Octavian

9. Who was among the famous Roman poets ?
A .Tacitus
B. Plink
C. Virgil
D. Marcus

10. Marco Polo, Venetian traveler, travelled from Venice to China and Japan in:
A .1285 – 90
B.1288 – 93
C.1290 – 96
D.1295 - 1301

Answer Keys:
1.A
2.A
3.D
4.C
5.A
6.C
7.A
8.D
9.C
10.B

Wednesday, April 29, 2020

GK-INDIAN CONSTITUTIONAL BODIES MCQS PART 10

UPSC April 29, 2020

GK-INDIAN CONSTITUTIONAL BODIES MCQS PART 10

GK-INDIAN CONSTITUTIONAL BODIES MCQS PART 10

1. When did India become a fully Sovereign Democratic Republic—
(A) 26th Nov. 1949
(B) 26th Nov. 1930
(C) 26th Jan. 1949
(D) 26th Nov. 1951

2. After Indian Independence, what was not Provisional Parliament provided—
(A) Directly Elected Body
(B) Indirectly Elected Body
(C) Sovereign Body
(D) None of the above

3. In the Provisional Parliament of India, how many members were there—
(A) 296
(B) 313
(C) 318
(D) 316

4. In India who amended the Constitution through the first Amendment Bill 1951—
(A) Lok Sabha
(B) Rajya Sabha
(C) Provisional Parliament
(D) Parliament

5. Who was the first Prime Minister of India at the time of Provisional Parliament—
(A) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(B) Lal Bahadur Shastri
(C) Indira Gandhi
(D) Rajiv Gandhi

6. Who was be Deputy Prime Minister of India at the time of Provisional Parliament—
(A) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(B) Sardar Ballabh Bahi Patel
(D) Maulana Abdul Kalam Azad
(D) Gulzarilal Nanda

7. Which occupation was represented more in the Provisional Parliament—
(A) Agriculturists
(B) Businessmen
(C) Teachers/Academicians
(D) Lawyers

8. From which area, more members were represented in the Provisional Parliament—
(A) Rural area
(B) Urban area
(C) Municipalities
(D) Panchayats

9. When did the first Lok Sabha function—
(A) 1952-1956
(B) 1953-1957
(C) 1952-1957
(D) None of the above

10. Who was the Prime Minister of India in the first Lok Sabha—
(A) Pandit Govind Ballabh Pant
(B) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(C) Abdul Kalam Azad
(D) C. D. Deshmukh

Answer Keys:
1.C
2.A
3.B
4.C
5.A
6.B
7.D
8.A
9.C
10.A

GK-INDIAN CONSTITUTIONAL BODIES MCQS PART 09

UPSC April 29, 2020

GK-INDIAN CONSTITUTIONAL BODIES MCQS PART 09

GK-INDIAN CONSTITUTIONAL BODIES MCQS PART 09

1. In the National Flag, whom does the wheel represent—
(A) Prithivi Raj Chauhan
(B) Raja Man Singh
(C) Ashoka
(D) None of the above

2. In the National Flag, what shall be the Ratio of the width to the length—
(A) 2 : 3
(B) 2 : 4
(C) 2 : 5
(D) 2 : 6

3. In the National Flag, how many colours are there—
(A) Four
(B) Three
(C) Two
(D) Five

4. Which colours are included in the National Flag—
(A) Deep Saffron
(B) White
(C) Dark Green
(D) All the above

5. In the National Flag, which colour is used in the wheel—
(A) Blue
(B) Navy Blue
(C) Red Green
(D) Green-White

6. In the Constituent Assembly, when was the ad-hoc Committee appointed for the National Flag—
(A) 23rd June 1947
(B) 23rd July 1947
(C) 23rd Jan. 1947
(D) 23rd Feb. 1947

7. What was the name of India’s First Legislature—
(A) Parliament
(B) Union Parliament
(C) Constituent Assembly
(D) National Assembly.

8. During what period, Constituent Assembly of India worked—
(A) 1948-1950
(B) 1949-1951
(C) 1947-1949
(D) 1951-1952

9. Who was the first Speaker of free India’s first Legislature (Constituent Assembly)
(A) G. V. Mavalankar
(B) K. M. Munshi
(C) Frank Anthony
(D) Smt. Sarojini Naidu

10. After Indian Independence who represented Provisional Parliament—
(A) Lok Sabha
(B) Parliament
(C) Rajya Sabha
(D) Constituent Assembly

Answer Keys:
1.C
2.A
3.B
4.D
5.B
6.A
7.C
8.C
9.A
10.D

GK-INDIAN CONSTITUTIONAL BODIES MCQS PART 08

UPSC April 29, 2020

GK-INDIAN CONSTITUTIONAL BODIES MCQS PART 08

GK-INDIAN CONSTITUTIONAL BODIES MCQS PART 08

1. In the Constituent Assembly, what was the number of population fixed for one Representative—
(A) 7,500
(B) 7,50,000
(C) 50,000
(D) 78,500

2. Who elected Dr. Rajendra Prasad as the First President of India—
(A) Constituent Assembly
(B) Legislative Assembly
(C) Council of State
(D) Lok Sabha

3. In the Constituent Assembly who proposed the name of Dr. Rajendra Prasad as President of India—
(A) Jawaharlal Nehru
(B) Sardar Patel
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

4. Which is our National anthem—
(A) Jana Gana Mana
(B) Vande Matram
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

5. When did the Constituent Assembly adopt National Anthem—
(A) 25th Jan. 1950
(B) 26th Jan. 1950
(C) 24th Jan. 1950
(D) 29th Jan. 1950

6. In the last session of the Constituent Assembly which song was sung—
(A) Jan Gana Mana
(B) Vande Matram
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

7. Which women presented National Flag in the Constituent Assembly—
(A) Smt. Sarojini Naidu
(B) Smt. Hansa Mehta
(C) Smt. Indira Gandhi
(D) None of the above

8. In the Indian National Flag, what does Ashoka’s wheel represent—
(A) Wheel of the Truth
(B) Wheel of the Moral
(C) Wheel of the Dharm
(D) Wheel of the Law

9. In the National Flag, what does green colour represent—
(A) Animals
(B) Soil
(C) Human Nature
(D) Spiritual Philosophy

10. In the National Flag, what does saffron colour represent—
(A) Spirit of Renunciation
(B) Spirit of colours
(C) Spirit of Human nature
(D) None of the above

Answer Keys:
1.B
2.A
3.C
4.C
5.C
6.C
7.B
8.D
9.B
10.A

GK-INDIAN CONSTITUTIONAL BODIES MCQS PART 07

UPSC April 29, 2020

GK-INDIAN CONSTITUTIONAL BODIES MCQS PART 07

GK-INDIAN CONSTITUTIONAL BODIES MCQS PART 07

1. How many seats were obtained by the Muslim League in the Constituent Assembly—
(A) 74
(B) 75
(C) 73
(D) 76

2. How many seats were acquired by the other parties in the Constituent Assembly—
(A) 14
(B) 15
(C) 17
(D) 18

3. How many total members were elected in the Constituent Assembly—
(A) 296
(B) 293
(C) 291
(D) 292

4. In the Parliament of India Upper House in known as—
(A) Lok Sabha
(B) Rajya Sabha
(C) Council of States
(D) None of the above

5. In the Parliament, Lower House is called as—
(A) Legislative Assembly
(B) Legislative Council
(C) Rajya Sabha
(D) Lok Sabha (House of People)

6. In the Constituent Assembly who was the Head of the Union Constitution Committee—
(A) Jawaharlal Nehru    `
(B) Sardar Patel
(C) Subhash Buse
(D) None of the above

7. In the Constituent Assembly which words were associated with the Parliament—
(A) Parliament of the Legislature
(B) Parliament of the Union
(C) Parliament of the Federation
(D) All the above

8. In the Constituent Assembly, it was said that Parliament of the Federation shall consist of the President and what else—
(A) National Legislature
(B) National Assembly
(C) House of People
(D) Council of State

9. In the Constituent Assembly, which committee recommended that Indian Constitution adopt Parliamentary Form of Executive—
(A) Drafting Committee
(B) Constitutional Committee
(C) Union Constitution Committee
(D) All the above

10. In the Constituent Assembly, how many seats were fixed for House of People—
(A) 500
(B) 400
(C) 300
(D) 250

Answer Keys:
1.C
2.A
3.D
4.B
5.D
6.A
7.C
8.A
9.C
10.A

GK-INDIAN CONSTITUTIONAL BODIES MCQS PART 06

UPSC April 29, 2020

GK-INDIAN CONSTITUTIONAL BODIES MCQS PART 06

GK-INDIAN CONSTITUTIONAL BODIES MCQS PART 06

1. When was the draft Constitution of India prepared by the Drafting Committee submitted to the President of the Constituent Assembly—
(A) 28th Feb. 1948
(B) 26th Feb. 1948
(C) 21st Feb. 1948
(D) 25th Feb. 1948

2. When was the Second Reading of the Constitution completed in the Constituent Assembly—
(A) 18 Nov. 1949
(B) 17 Nov. 1949
(C) 15 Nov. 1949
(D) 16 Nov. 1949

3. How many readings were held on the Constitution in the Constituent Assembly—
(A) First Reading
(B) Third Reading
(C) Second Reading
(D) None of the above

4. When was the Constitution of India adopted by the Constituent Assembly—
(A) 25th Nov. 1949
(B) 29th Nov. 1949
(C) 26th Nov. 1949
(D) 27th Nov. 1949

5. How many Princely States existed at the time when the Constituent Assembly was making the Constitution—
(A) 600
(B) 800
(C) 900
(D) 950

6. Who said, ‘I feel, however, good a Constitution may be, it is sure to turn out bad because those who are called to work it, taken to be a bad lot. However bad a Constitution may be, it may turn out to be good if those who are called to work it, happens to be a good lot. The working of a Constitution does not depend wholly upon the nature of the Constitution’—
(A) Dr. Ambedkar
(B) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(C) Dr. Subhash Kashyap
(D) None of the above

7. Who stated, ‘As to the execution that the Draft Constitution has produced a good part of the provisions of the Government of India Act 1935, make no apologies. There is nothing to be ashamed of in Borrowing.’—
(A) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(B) Jawhar Lal Nehru
(C) Gandhiji
(D) Dr. Ambedkar

8. Who said, ‘If the people who are elected are capable and men of character and integrity, they would be able to make the best even of a defective Constitution. If they are lacking in these, the Constitution cannot help the country’—
(A) Sardar Hukam Singh
(B) K. M. Munshi
(C) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(D) Sardar Ballabh Bhai Patel

9. When were the election to the Constituent Assembly held—
(A) July 1946
(B) Aug. 1946
(C) Sep. 1946
(D) Oct. 1946

10. In the Constituent Assembly how many seats were got by the Congress—
(A) 204
(B) 205
(C) 203
(D) 208

Answer Keys:
1.C
2.D
3.B
4.C
5.A
6.A
7.D
8.C
9.A
10.B

GK-INDIAN CONSTITUTIONAL BODIES MCQS PART 05

UPSC April 29, 2020

GK-INDIAN CONSTITUTIONAL BODIES MCQS PART 05

GK-INDIAN CONSTITUTIONAL BODIES MCQS PART 05

1. How many number of sessions were held in the Constituent Assembly—
(A) Twenty sessions
(B) Twelve sessions
(C) Twenty-five sessions
(D) Twenty-eight sessions

2. How many Articles and Schedules were in the First Draft Constitution presented by the Drafting Committee to the Constituent Assembly—
(A) 318 Articles and 7 Schedules
(B) 319 Articles ad 10 Schedules
(C) 315 Articles and 8 Schedules
(D) 399 Articles and 5 Schedules

3. In the final form of the Constitution adopted by the Constituent Assembly, how many Articles and Schedules were there—
(A) 397 Articles and 9 Schedules
(B) 395 Articles and 4 Schedules
(C) 396 Articles and 7 Schedules
(D) 395 Articles and 8 Schedules

4. In the Constituent Assembly how many total number of Amendments were proposed in the Draft Constitution—
(A) Approx. 7935
(B) Approx. 7892
(C) Approx. 7365
(D) Approx. 2473

5. What was the expenditure made by the Constituent Assembly while framing the Constitution of India—
(A) Rs. 63,96,729
(B) Rs. 64,98,725
(C) Rs. 69,92,769
(D) Rs. 65,92,926

6. How many visitors came to witness the proceedings of the Constituent Assembly—
(A) 52,500
(B) 53,000
(C) 54,000
(D) 54,500

7. Who presented the Objective Resolution in the Constituent Assembly—
(A) Jawaharlal Nehru
(B) Motilal Nehru
(C) Sardar Ballabah Bhai Patel
(D) None of the above

8. When was the First Draft of the Constitution of India proposed—
(A) Oct. 1945
(B) Oct. 1947
(C) Oct. 1946
(D) Oct. 1948

9. Who prepared the first draft Constitution of India—
(A) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(B) Gandhiji
(C) Advisory Branch of the Constituent Assembly
(D) Sardar Ballabh Bhai Patel

10. Who was the Chairman of the Draft Committee of the Constituent Assembly—
(A) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
(B) K. M. Munshi
(C) Jagjivan Ram
(D) None of the above

Answer Keys:
1.B
2.C
3.D
4.C
5.A
6.B
7.A
8.B
9.C
10.A

GK-INDIAN CONSTITUTIONAL BODIES MCQS PART 04

UPSC April 29, 2020

GK-INDIAN CONSTITUTIONAL BODIES MCQS PART 04

GK-INDIAN CONSTITUTIONAL BODIES MCQS PART 04

1. Which Party supported formation of a Constituent Assembly—
(A) Congress
(B) Muslim League
(C) Unionist Muslim
(D) Unionist Scheduled Castes

2. When did Constituent Assembly adopt a national Flag—
(A) 22nd Aug. 1947
(B) 22nd July 1947
(C) 22nd Jan. 1947
(D) 22nd Oct. 1947

3. Did the Constituent Assembly exist at the time of Indian Independence—
(A) No
(B) Only idea emerged
(C) Yes
(D) Uncertainty regarding formation of said Assembly

4. Who was the last British Governor General who addressed the Constituent Assembly—
(A) Lord Attlee
(B) Lord Mount Batten
(C) Lord Bentick
(D) None of the above

5. When did the Constituent Assembly passed a resolution for translation of the Constitution of India into Hindi and other many languages of India—
(A) 17th Sep. 1949
(B) 17th Oct. 1949
(C) 17th Nov. 1949
(D) 17th Dec. 1949

6. What was the last session of the Constituent Assembly—
(A) Eleventh session
(B) Twelfth session
(C) Sixteenth session
(D) Seventh session

7. When was the last Twelfth session of the Constituent Assembly held—
(A) 24th Jan. 1950
(B) 24th Feb. 1950
(C) 24th April 1950
(D) 24th Dec. 1950

8. How many copies of the Constitution were printed after the Constituent Assembly framed the same—
(A) Two
(B) One
(C) Three
(D) Four

9. Which song was sang in the Constituent Assembly before its Adjournment sine die—
(A) Jana Gana Man
(B) Vande Matram
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

10. For how many years, months and days, did the Constituent Assembly work on the Constitution of India—
(A) 2 Years, 11 months and 19 Days
(B) 3 Years, 12 months and 16 Days
(C) 4 Years, 18 months and 6 Days
(D) None of the above

Answer Keys:1.A
2.B
3.C
4.B
5.A
6.B
7.A
8.C
9.C
10.A

GK-INDIAN CONSTITUTIONAL BODIES MCQS PART 03

UPSC April 29, 2020

GK-INDIAN CONSTITUTIONAL BODIES MCQS PART 03

GK-INDIAN CONSTITUTIONAL BODIES MCQS PART 03

1. Which Constitution is in the written form for the first time by an elected body during the Modern period—
(A) India
(B) America
(C) Britain
(D) France

2. Who was the de facto Prime Minister at the time of evolution of the Indian Constituent Assembly—
(A) Moti Lal Nehru
(B) Sardar Ballabh Bhai Patal
(C) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(D) H. N. Kunzru

3. Who boicotted the Indian Constituent Assembly—
(A) Unionist Muslim
(B) Muslim League
(C) Unionist Scheduled Caste
(D) Krishak Poja

4. In the Constituent Assembly, which parties were members—
(A) Congress, Muslim League, Unionist Muslim
(B) Unionist Scheduled Caste, Krishak Poja, Scheduled Castes Federation, Sikh (Non Congress)
(C) Communists, Independents
(D) All the above

5. Which party said that Indian Constituent Assembly does not have a fully representative character—
(A) Congress
(B) Muslim League
(C) Unionist Muslim
(D) Unionist Scheduled Castes

6. After independence, who decided to determine the Future Constitution of India—
(A) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(B) Sardar Ballabh Bhai Patel
(C) Constituent Assembly
(D) None of the above

7. Whom the Indian Constituent Assembly represented—
(A) Fully representative of the Hindus
(B) Fully representative of the State in India
(C) Fully representative of the Provinces in India
(D) Fully representative of the States and Provinces in India

8. Through which offer, the British Government authoritatively supported a Constituent Assembly for making the Indian Constitution
(A) August offer
(B) Viceroy offer
(C) Sir Strafford Cripps offer
(D) None of the above

9. Who supported the views of the Constituent Assembly for making the Indian Constitution—
(A) Sardar Patel
(B) Gandhiji
(C) Jinnah
(D) None of the above

10. Gandhiji wrote which article in the Harijan of 19th November 1939 to support the formation of Constituent Assembly for making the Constitution of India—
(A) The need of Constitution
(B) Formation of Constituent Assembly
(C) The only way
(D) The way

Answer Keys:
1.B
2.C
3.B
4.D
5.B
6.C
7.D
8.A
9.B
10.C

GK-INDIAN CONSTITUTIONAL BODIES MCQS PART 02

UPSC April 29, 2020

GK-INDIAN CONSTITUTIONAL BODIES MCQS PART 02

GK-INDIAN CONSTITUTIONAL BODIES MCQS PART 02

1. Under the Govt. of India Act 1935, which communities were provided separate representation in the Electorate system—
(A) Sikh, Europeans
(B) Indian Christians
(C) Anglo-Indians
(D) All the above

2. Under which Government of India Act, Federation and Provincial Autonomy were introduced in India—
(A) Govt. of India Act 1935
(B) Govt. of India Act 1930
(C) Govt. of India Act 1940
(D) Govt. of India Act 1936

3. Under the British rule, how many acts came into operation—
(A) Govt. of India Act 1858, Indian Council Act 1861
(B) Indian Council Act 1892, Indian Council Act 1809
(C) Govt. of India Act 1919, Govt. of India Act 1935, Indian Independence Act 1947
(D) All the above

4. Which Act provided India to become an Independent state—
(A) Indian Independence Act 1949
(B) Indian Independence Act 1946
(C) Indian Independence Act 1947
(D) None of the above

5. Under the Govt. of India Act 1935, the Indian Federation worked through which kind of list—
(A) Federal List
(B) Provincial List
(C) Concurrent List
(D) All the above

6. In the Govt. of India Act 1835, Federal List contained which kind of subjects—
(A) External Affairs
(B) Currency and Coinage
(C) Naval, Military and Force, Census
(D) All the above

7. In the Govt. of India Act 1935, provincial list included which kind of subjects—
(A) Police
(B) Provincial Public Service
(C) Education
(D) All the above

8. In the Govt. of India Act 1935, which subjects are included in the concurrent list—
(A) Criminal Law & Procedure, Civil Procedure
(B) Marriage
(C) Divorce, Arbitration
(D) All the above

9. Under the Govt. of India Act 1935, who had the power to proclaim emergency—
(A) Governor General
(B) General of India
(C) Governor of the State
(D) None of the above

10. In the Govt. of India Act 1935, who was authorised to make a law on the Provincial subject—
(A) Governor
(B) Governor General
(C) Federal Legislature
(D) None of the above

Answer Keys:
1.D
2.A
3.D
4.C
5.D
6.D
7.D
8.D
9.A
10.C

GK-INDIAN CONSTITUTIONAL BODIES MCQS PART 01

UPSC April 29, 2020

GK-INDIAN CONSTITUTIONAL BODIES MCQS PART 01

GK-INDIAN CONSTITUTIONAL BODIES MCQS PART 01

1.Indian Republic is not the product of—
(A) Political Revolution
(B) Discussion
(C) Made by a body of eminent representatives of the people
(D) All the above

2. For the first time, British Parliament enacted which laws for the British Government to govern in India—
(A) Govt. of India Act 1857
(B) Govt. of India Act 1858
(C) Govt. of India Act 1891
(D) Govt. of India Act 1888

3. The British Secretary of the State governed India through which Institution—
(A) Executive Council
(B) Parliament
(C) Governor assisted by an Executive Council
(D) Governor General appointed by an Executive Council

4. Under the British Rule in India, Governor General was responsible to—
(A) Secretary of India
(B) Secretary of Britain
(C) Secretary of State
(D) None of the above

5. Morely-Minto reform is associated with which Act—
(A) Indian Council Act 1856
(B) Indian Council Act 1909
(C) Indian Council Act 1908
(D) Indian Council Act 1912

6. During the British rule, which community got separate representation from which Act—
(A) Christian Community & Indian Council Act 1909
(B) Buddhist Community & Indian Council Act 1907
(C) Muslim Community & Indian Council Act 1909
(D) All the above

7. During the British period, under which Act election was introduced in India—
(A) Indian Council Act 1913
(B) Indian Council Act 1909
(C) Indian Council Act 1906
(D) Indian Council Act 1907

8. Montagu-Chelmsford report is associated with which Govt of India Act—
(A) Govt. of India Act 1918
(B) Govt. of India Act 1920
(C) Govt. of India Act 1930
(D) Govt. of India Act 1919

9. When was the Indian National Congress established—
(A) 1888
(B) 1885
(C) 1889
(D) 1890

10. Under the British Rule when ‘Dyarchy Governing System’ was introduced for the first time—
(A) Govt. of India Act 1919
(B) Govt. of India Act 1929
(C) Govt. of India Act 1925
(D) Govt. of India Act 1935

Answer Keys:
1.A
2.B
3.D
4.C
5.B
6.C
7.B
8.D
9.B
10.A

COMPUTER AWARENESS-MEMORY MCQS SET 71

SSC / RAILWAY April 29, 2020

COMPUTER AWARENESS-MEMORY MCQS SET 71

COMPUTER AWARENESS-MEMORY MCQS SET 71

1. How can UV erasable PROMs be recognized?
A.There is a small window on the chip.
B.They will have a small violet dot next to the #1 pin.
C.Their part number always starts with a "U", such as in U12.
D.They are not readily identifiable, since they must always be kept under a small cover.
Answer: Option A

2. What part of a Flash memory architecture manages all chip functions?
A.I/O pins        B.floating-gate MOSFET        C.command code    D.program verify code
Answer: Option B

3. An 8-bit address code can select ________.
A.8 locations in memory    B.256 locations in memory        C.65,536 locations in memory
D.131,072 locations in memory
Answer: Option B

4. Eight bits of digital data are normally referred to as a:
A.group.        B.byte.            C.word.            D.cell.
Answer: Option B

5. Which is not a hard disk performance parameter?
A.Seek time        B.Break time        C.Latency period        D.Access time
Answer: Option B
6. The ideal memory ________.
A. has high storage capacity            B. is nonvolatile
C. has in-system read and write capacity            D. has all of the above characteristics
Answer: Option D

7. To which pin on the RAM chip does the address decoder connect in order to signal which memory chip is being accessed?
A.The address input        B.The output enable        C.The chip enable
D.The data input
Answer: Option C

8. EEPROM stands for ________.
A.encapsulated electrical programmable read-only memory
B.elementary electrical programmable read-only memory
C.electrically erasable programmable read-only memory
D.elementary erasable programmable read-only memory
Answer: Option C
9. L1 is known as ________.
A.primary cache        B.secondary cache        C.DRAM        D.SRAM
Answer: OptionA

10. Describe the timing diagram of a write operation.
A.First the data is set on the data bus and the address is set, then the write pulse stores the data.
B.First the address is set, then the data is set on the data bus, and finally the read pulse stores the data.
C.First the write pulse stores the data, then the address is set, and finally the data is set on the data bus.
D.First the data is set on the data bus, then the write pulse stores the data, and finally the address is set.
Answer: Option A

COMPUTER AWARENESS - MEMORY MCQS SET 70

SSC / RAILWAY April 29, 2020

COMPUTER AWARENESS - MEMORY MCQS SET 70

COMPUTER AWARENESS -MEMORY MCQS SET 70

1. The refresh period for capacitors used in DRAMs is ________.
A.2 ms        B.2 s        C.64 ms            D.64 s
Answer: Option A
2. What is the principal advantage of using address multiplexing with DRAM memory?
A.reduced memory access time
B.reduced requirement for constant refreshing of the memory contents
C.reduced pin count and decrease in package size
D.It eliminates the requirement for a chip-select input line, thereby reducing the pin count.
Answer: Option C

3. What is a multitap digital delay line?
A. a series of inverter gates with RC circuits between each one
B. a series of inverter gates with RL circuits between each one
C. a series of NAND gates with RC circuits between each one
D. a series of NAND gates with RL circuits between each one
Answer: Option A
4. The bit capacity of a memory that has 2048 addresses and can store 8 bits at each address is ________.
A.4096            B.8129            C.16358        D.32768
Answer: Option C

5. How many 8 k × 1 RAMs are required to achieve a memory with a word capacity of 8 k and a word length of eight bits?
A.Eight            B.Four            C.Two            D.One
Answer: Option A
6. The mask ROM is ________.
A.MOS technology        B.diode technology        C.resistor-diode technology
D.DROM technology
Answer: Option A

7. Which of the following is not a flash memory mode or operation?
A.Burst            B.Read            C.Erase            D.Programming
Answer: Option A
8. The smallest unit of binary data is the ________.
A.bit        B.nibble    C.byte        D.word
Answer: Option A

9. Select the statement that best describes the fusible-link PROM.
A.user-programmable, one-time programmable
B.manufacturer-programmable, one-time programmable
C.user-programmable, reprogrammable
D.manufacturer-programmable, reprogrammable
Answer: Option A

COMPUTER AWARENESS - MEMORY MCQS SET 69

SSC / RAILWAY April 29, 2020

COMPUTER AWARENESS - MEMORY MCQS SET 69

COMPUTER AWARENESS - MEMORY MCQS SET 69

1. How many 1K × 4 RAM chips would be required to build a 1K × 8 memory system?
A.2        B.4        C.8        D.16
Answer: Option A

2. Which of the following memories uses a MOS capacitor as its memory cell?
A.SRAM            B.DRAM        C.ROM            D.FIFO
Answer: Option B

3. Which of the following faults will the checkerboard pattern test for in RAM?
A.Short between adjacent cells                B.Ability to store both 0s and 1s
C.Dynamically introduced errors between cells        D.All of the above
Answer: Option D

4. On a CD-ROM, ________ are raised areas representing a 1.
A.mounds        B.lands            C.holes            D.pits
Answer: Option B

5. The location of a unit of data in a memory array is called its ________.
A.storage        B.RAM        C.address        D.data
Answer: Option C

6. On a CD-ROM, ________ are recessed areas representing a 0.
A.mounds        B.lands            C.holes            D.pits
Answer: Option D

7. Why is a refresh cycle necessary for a dynamic RAM?
A.to clear the flip-flops                B.to set the flip-flops
C.The refresh cycle discharges the capacitor cells.
D.The refresh cycle keeps the charge on the capacitor cells.
Answer: Option D

8. Which is not a magnetic storage device?
A.Magnetic disk        B.Magnetic tape        C.Magneto-optical disk        D.Optical disk
Answer: Option D

9. The time from the beginning of a read cycle to the end of tACS or tAA is referred to as:
A.access time        B.data hold        C.read cycle time        D.write enable time
Answer: Option A

10. Which of the following memories is volatile?
A.ROM        B.EROM        C.RAM            D.Flash
Answer: Option C

COMPUTER AWARENESS - MEMORY MCQS SET 68

SSC / RAILWAY April 29, 2020

COMPUTER AWARENESS - MEMORY MCQS SET 68

COMPUTER AWARENESS - MEMORY MCQS SET 68

1. Which of the following is normally used to initialize a computer system's hardware?
A.Bootstrap memory        B.Volatile memory        C.External mass memory
D.Static memory
Answer: Option A

2. What is the difference between static RAM and dynamic RAM?
A.Static RAM must be refreshed, dynamic RAM does not.
B.There is no difference.
C.Dynamic RAM must be refreshed, static RAM does not.
Answer: Option C

3. Microprocessors and memory ICs are generally designed to drive only a single TTL load. Therefore, if several inputs are being driven from the same bus, any memory IC must be ________.
A.buffered        B.decoded        C.addressed            D.stored
Answer: Option A

4. What are the typical values of tOE?
A.10 to 20 ns for bipolar

B.25 to 100 ns for NMOS

C.12 to 50 ns for CMOS
D.All of the above
Answer: Option D

5. Which type of ROM can be erased by UV light?
A.ROM            B.mask ROM        C.EPROM        D.EEPROM
Answer: Option C

6. Which of the following is NOT a type of memory?
A.RAM            B.ROM            C.FPROM        D.EEPROM
Answer: Option C
7. How many address bits are required for a 4096-bit memory organized as a 512 × 8 memory?
A.2        B.4        C.8        D.9
Answer: Option D

8. In general, the ________ have the smallest bit size and the ________ have the largest.
A.EEPROMs, Flash    B.SRAM, mask ROM        C.mask ROM, SRAM        D.DRAM, PROM
Answer: Option A

9. Advantage(s) of an EEPROM over an EPROM is/are:
A.the EPROM can be erased with ultraviolet light in much less time than an EEPROM
B.the EEPROM can be erased and reprogrammed without removal from the circuit
C.the EEPROM has the ability to erase and reprogram individual words
D.the EEPROM can be erased and reprogrammed without removal from the circuit, and can erase and reprogram individual words
Answer: Option D

10. The mask ROM is ________.
A.permanently programmed during the manufacturing process            B.volatile
C.easy to reprogram                                D.extremely expensive
Answer: Option A

COMPUTER AWARENESS - MEMORY MCQS SET 67

SSC / RAILWAY April 29, 2020

COMPUTER AWARENESS - MEMORY MCQS SET 67

COMPUTER AWARENESS - MEMORY MCQS SET 67

1. Data is written to and read from the disk via a magnetic ________ head mechanism in the floppy drive.
A.cylinder        B.read/write        C.recordable        D.cluster
Answer: Option B

2. What does the term "random access" mean in terms of memory?
A.Addresses must be accessed in a specific order.
B.Any address can be accessed in any order.
Answer: Option B

3. A 64-Mbyte SIMM is installed into a system, but when a memory test is executed, the SIMM is detected as a 32-Mbyte device. What is a possible cause?
A.The memory module was not installed properly.
B.The voltage on the memory module is incorrect.
C.The most significant address line is stuck high or low.
D.The address decoder on the SIMM is faulty.
Answer: Option D

5. How many address lines would be required for a 2K × 4 memory chip?
A.8        B.10        C.11        D.12
Answer: Option C

6. When a RAM module passes the checkerboard test it is:
A.able to read and write only 1s.    B.faulty.    C.probably good.
D.able to read and write only 0s.
Answer: Option C

7. Which type of ROM has to be custom built by the factory?
A.ROM            B.mask ROM            C.EPROM        D.EEPROM
Answer: Option B

8. What is the computer main memory?
A.Hard drive and RAM        B.CD-ROM and hard drive        C.RAM and ROM
D.CMOS and hard drive
Answer: Option C

9. A major disadvantage of the mask ROM is that it:
A.is time consuming to change the stored data when system requirements change
B.is very expensive to change the stored data when system requirements change
C.cannot be reprogrammed if stored data needs to be changed
D.has an extremely short life expectancy and requires frequent replacement
Answer: Option C

10. The periodic recharging of DRAM memory cells is called ________.
A.multiplexing        B.bootstrapping        C.refreshing        D.flashing
Answer: Option C

COMPUTER AWARENESS - MEMORY MCQS SET 66

SSC / RAILWAY April 29, 2020

COMPUTER AWARENESS - MEMORY MCQS SET 66

COMPUTER AWARENESS - MEMORY MCQS SET 66

1. Which of the following best describes volatile memory?
A.memory that retains stored information when electrical power is removed
B.memory that loses stored information when electrical power is removed
C.magnetic memory
D.nonmagnetic
Answer: Option B

2. What is a major disadvantage of RAM?
A.Its access speed is too slow.

B.Its matrix size is too big.

C.It is volatile.
D.High power consumption
Answer: Option C

3. What two functions does a DRAM controller perform?
A.address multiplexing and data selection

B.address multiplexing and the refresh operation
C.data selection and the refresh operation

D.data selection and CPU accessing
Answer: Option B

5. Dynamic memory cells store a data bit in a ________.
A.diode            B.resistor        C.capacitor        D.flip-flop
Answer: Option C

6. Which is not part of a hard disk drive?
A.Spindle        B.Platter        C.Read/write head        D.Valve
Answer: Option D

7. ROMs retain data when the ________.
A.power is off        B.power is on        C.system is down        D.all of the above
Answer: Option D

8. Typically, how often is DRAM refreshed?
A.2 to 8 ms        B.4 to 16 ms        C.8 to 16 s        D.1 to 2 s
Answer: Option B

9. Which type of ROM can be erased by an electrical signal?
A.ROM            B.mask ROM        C.EPROM        D.EEPROM
Answer: Option D

10. Suppose that a certain semiconductor memory chip has a capacity of 8K × 8. How many bytes could be stored in this device?
A.8,000            B.64,000        C.65,536        D.8,192
Answer: Option D

COMPUTER AWARENESS - MEMORY MCQS SET 65

SSC / RAILWAY April 29, 2020

COMPUTER AWARENESS - MEMORY MCQS SET 65

COMPUTER AWARENESS - MEMORY MCQS SET 65

1. A CD-R disk is created by applying heat to special chemicals on the disk and these chemicals reflect less light than the areas that are not burned, thus creating the same effect as a pit does on a regular CD.
A.True B.False
Answer: Option A

2. Which of the following is one of the basic characteristics of DRAMs?
A.DRAMs must have a constantly changing input.
B.DRAMs must be periodically refreshed in order to be able to retain data.
C.DRAMs have a broader "dynamic" storage range than other types of memories.
D.DRAMs are simpler devices than other types of memories.
Answer: Option B

3. Which of the following best describes static memory devices?
A.memory devices that are magnetic in nature and do not require constant refreshing
B.memory devices that are magnetic in nature and require constant refreshing
C.semiconductor memory devices in which stored data will not be retained with the power applied unless constantly refreshed
D.semiconductor memory devices in which stored data is retained as long as power is applied
Answer: Option D

4. Which is not a removable drive?
A.Zip B.Jaz C.Hard D.SuperDisk
Answer: Option C

5. Which of the following best describes EPROMs?
A.EPROMs can be programmed only once.

B.EPROMs can be erased by UV.
C.EPROMs can be erased by shorting all inputs to the ground.

D.All of the above.
Answer: Option B

6. How many storage locations are available when a memory device has 12 address lines?
A.144        B.512        C.2048        D.4096
Answer: Option D
7. FIFO is formed by an arrangement of ________.
A.diodes        B.transistors        C.MOS cells        D.shift registers
Answer: Option D
8. Why do most dynamic RAMs use a multiplexed address bus?
A.It is the only way to do it.
B.to make it faster
C.to keep the number of pins on the chip to a minimum
Answer: Option C
9. CCD stands for ________.
A.capacitor charging device

B.capacitor-capacitor drain

C.charged-capacitor device
D.charge-coupled device
Answer: Option D

10. What is the major difference between SRAM and DRAM?
A.DRAMs must be periodically refreshed.
B.SRAMs can hold data via a static charge, even with power off.
C.The only difference is the terminal from which the data is removed—from the FET Drain or Source.
D.Dynamic RAMs are always active; static RAMs must reset between data read/write cycles.
Answer: Option A

COMPUTER AWARENESS - MEMORY MCQS SET 64

SSC / RAILWAY April 29, 2020

COMPUTER AWARENESS - MEMORY MCQS SET 64

COMPUTER AWARENESS - MEMORY MCQS SET 64

1. A 64-bit word consists of ________.
A.4 bytes        B.8 bytes        C.10 bytes        D.12 bytes
Answer: Option B
2. Which of the following RAM timing parameters determine its operating speed?
A.Tacc            B.tAA and tACS        C.tCO and tOD        D.tRC and tWC
Answer: OptionD

3. The reason the data outputs of most ROM ICs are tristate outputs is to:
A.allow for three separate data input lines.
B.allow the bidirectional flow of data between the bus lines and the ROM registers.
C.permit the connection of many ROM chips to a common data bus.
D.isolate the registers from the data bus during read operations.
Answer: Option C
4. Select the statement that best describes Read-Only Memory (ROM).
A.nonvolatile, used to store information that changes during system operation
B.nonvolatile, used to store information that does not change during system operation
C.volatile, used to store information that changes during system operation
D.volatile, used to store information that does not change during system operation
Answer: Option B
5. How many 2K × 8 ROM chips would be required to build a 16K × 8 memory system?
A.2        B.4        C.8        D.16
Answer: Option C
6. What is the maximum time required before a dynamic RAM must be refreshed?
A.2 ms        B.4 ms        C.8 ms        D.10 ms
Answer: Option A
7. Which of the following best describes random-access memory (RAM)?
A.a type of memory in which access time depends on memory location
B.a type of memory that can be written to only once but can be read from an infinite number of times
C.a type of memory in which access time is the same for each memory location
D.mass memory
Answer: Option C

8. Why are ROMs called nonvolatile memory?
A.They lose memory when power is removed.
B.They do not lose memory when power is removed.
Answer: Option B

9. Which of the following describes the action of storing a bit of data in a mask ROM?
A.A 1 is stored in a bipolar cell by opening the base connection to the address line.
B.A 0 is stored in a bipolar cell by shorting the base connection to the address line.
C.A 1 is stored by connecting the gate of a MOS cell to the address line.
D.A 0 is stored by connecting the gate of a MOS cell to the address line.
Answer: Option C

10.Address decoding for dynamic memory chip control may also be used for:
A.controlling refresh circuits B.read and write control
C.chip selection and address location D.memory mapping
Answer: Option C

COMPUTER AWARENESS - MEMORY MCQS SET 63

SSC / RAILWAY April 29, 2020

COMPUTER AWARENESS - MEMORY MCQS SET 63

COMPUTER AWARENESS - MEMORY MCQS SET 63

1. How many address bits are needed to select all memory locations in the 2118 16K × 1 RAM?
A.8 B.10 C.14 D.16
Answer: Option C
2. The check sum method of testing a ROM:
A. indicates if the data in more than one memory location is incorrect.
B. provides a means for locating and correcting data errors in specific memory locations.
C. allows data errors to be pinpointed to a specific memory location.
D. simply indicates that the contents of the ROM are incorrect.
Answer: Option D

3. The main advantage of semiconductor RAM is its ability to:
A.retain stored data when power is interrupted or turned off
B.be written to and read from rapidly
C.be randomly accessed
D.be sequentially accessed
Answer: Option B

4. What is the meaning of RAM, and what is its primary role?
A. Readily Available Memory; it is the first level of memory used by the computer in all of its operations.
B. Random Access Memory; it is memory that can be reached by any sub- system within a computer, and at any time.
C. Random Access Memory; it is the memory used for short-term temporary data storage within the computer.
D. Resettable Automatic Memory; it is memory that can be used and then automatically reset, or cleared, after being read from or written to.
Answer: Option C

5. The storage element for a static RAM is the ________.
A. diode        B. resistor        C. capacitor        D .flip-flop
Answer: Option D
6. In a DRAM, what is the state of R/W during a read operation?
A.Low            B.High            C.Hi-Z            D.None of the above
Answer: Option B
7. The condition occurring when two or more devices try to write data to a bus simultaneously is called ________.
A. address decoding    B. bus contention    C.bus collisions        D.address multiplexing
Answer: Option B
8. Which is/are the basic refresh mode(s) for dynamic RAM?
A.Burst refresh        B.Distributed refresh    C.Open refresh
D.Burst refresh and distributed refresh
Answer: Option D

9.One of the most important specifications on magnetic media is the ________.
A.rotation speed    B.tracks per inch    C.data transfer rate    D.polarity reversal rate
Answer: Option C

10. What is the bit storage capacity of a ROM with a 1024 × 8 organization?
A.1024 B.2048 C.4096 D.8192
Answer: Option D

GK-IMPORTANT DAYS AND EVENTS MCQS PART 10

UPSC April 29, 2020

GK-IMPORTANT DAYS AND EVENTS MCQS PART 10

GK-IMPORTANT DAYS AND EVENTS MCQS PART 10

1.Which day is celebrated on May 6 every year?
A. World Day Of The Deaf
B. World Haemophilia Day
C. International Awareness Day for Orthogenesis Imperfect
D. International Mourning Day

2.Which day is celebrated on May 7 every year?
A. Bladder Cancer Awareness Day
B. World Day for Audiovisual Heritage
C. International Pashtun Jirga Day
D. The International Day against Corruption

3.Which day is celebrated on May 8 every year?
A. World Book and Copyright Day
B. World Red Cross & Red Crescent Day
C. International Women's Day
D. World Naturist Day

4.Which day is celebrated on May 9 every year?
A.World Car Free Day
B. World Nature Conservation Day
C. Europe Day
D. World Radiographer Day

5.Which day is celebrated on May 9 every year?
A. World Thalassaemia Day
B. Hydrocephalus Day
C. World Senior Citizen Day
D. National Vaccination Day

6.Which day is celebrated on May 10 every year?
A. Cultural Unity Day
B. International Day of Non-Violence
C. World Mother Day
D. World Theatre Day

7.Which day is celebrated on May 11 every year?
A. National Technology Day
B. World Day for Water
C. World Solar Energy Day
D. World Trauma Day

8.Which day is celebrated on May 12 every year?
A. World Hypertension Day
B. International Beer Day
C. International Criminal Court Day
D. World Day of the Sick

9.Which day is celebrated on May 12 every year?
A. World Day Of The Deaf
B. National Coming Out Day
C. World Alzheimer's Day
D. World Nurses Day

10.Which day is celebrated on May 13 every year?
A. World Day Against Child Labour
B. International Criminal Court Day
C. World Aids Day
D. World Car Free Day

Answer Keys:
1.C
2.A
3.B
4.C
5.A
6.C
7.A
8.A
9.D
10.B

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